Questions

August 28, 2013: New Samples

Exam Questions from Hematology:
1.In what Condition or disease you expect to see the following Blood Smear?
tear Drop_cells

2. What disease is associated with the following Blood Smear?
sicle_cell

3) What Test to screen Sickle cell disease? Do remember the full name of the test.
Solubility Test, Sodium Dithionate

4) Blast cell= 6%, Meta=  3% , myelo=20%, Promyelo= 3%,
WBC=1.8  *10^3, Red Blood cells= 4.6 *10^6, Plt: 903*10^3.
Segs =50 %, Bands= 17%, Lymph=13%, Mono=3 %
This result is consistent with?
a. Neutrophilic Lekomoid reaction
b. Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia
c.Acute Myelocytic Leukemia

5)CD 3+, CD4-, CD8+, Surface Ig(-) , Cell Marker?
a.B Cells, b.T cell, c.Plasma Cell?

6) MCV =92, MCHC= Normal
Automated cell counter gave result as Microcytic, Normochromic , What’s the next step?
7) You see lots of eosinophil with a high LAP score, what do you do?
a. Report as 4+ b. Grade according to the Reaction c. Order a New blood sample
8) When you see Rouleaux on Blood Smear, how will you fix the issue?

9) APTT  and TT all prolonged?
a. Factor 5 b.protein C c.Factor 9
10) Patients with DIC?
a. Normal APTT and TT?
b. APTT prolong TT normal
c. APTT normal and TT prolonged
11) Lupus Anticoagulant = Dilute Russel’s Viper Venom screening.

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Added on Saturday (8-21-13)

12) Citrobacter vs Salmonella Reaction. organism grows on Mac Conkey but its colorless , has all reaction conisistent with Citrobacter. Whats the issue? ANswer= Problem with Agar Plate, Run a Control, because Citrobacter a slow Lactose Fermenter will be turning agar into Pinkish color not white.

13)RhIg= Rhogam , calculate how many vials needed for 50  cells Fetal Blood? (Whole Blood)
Answer = 50/30= 1.6 round to 2 and add 1= 3 vials needed.

Incase of RBC just divide by 15 not 30 and then round off and add 1 to final answer.

14) Apo Liporprotein is major protein of? = answer= HDL

15)Fresh Frozen Plasma Storage Temperature?
16)Irradiated Blood for?
17)One Panel given with multiple  antibodes , what will be your next step= Do Select cell Panel.

18)Another Panel shows 2 antibodies which could not be rules out, but the option only shows Ant-jka, Anti Jka and k, Anti k
I could not rule out Anti Jka and k so thats the answer both of them.

19)In case of Old people or immuno suppressed people, what BO discrepancy ?
20) Know ABO discrepancy for Sub Group of A.
21) Weak D +  in what scenarios?
22) Go to BOC for ASCP book Blood Bank section, Page # 25 Do Question # 168, 169, 174, 180, 181, 182, 185, 190, 192, 196. I had atleast 5 Questions from the above mentioned  Questions, So make sure you do those ABO dicrepency and screening cells cross match Questions , Understand them real good.
22)BOC Page 17 Question # 119 to 165 . Glance on this Questions, you will get atleast 3 Questions from mother and new Born antibodies and how to fix, calculate the RhIG, Rosette Test etc.

23) When do you use washed Redcells and when do you use Leukocyte Reduced Cells?
24)Cystic fibrosisi caused by which organism?
25)Which Neiserria Species is increasingly resistant to Penicillin?= N Gonorrohea.

26)Whats the reason on not doing Zinc protoporphyrin (ZPP) for Lead Poisoning on Kids ? Page # 115 Q-274, but it does not give reason.

Normally  Kids are tested for whole Blood Lead not ZPP or EPP which are for adults , the exact reason look it up on Internet.I think I got it wrong.
27) Cociane Metabolized to?
28)Procainamide metobilite = NAPA N Acet procanimide.
BOC Page # 113 Just do from 256 to 274 you will see all this type of Questions. Metabolites type QUestion.
29) Know Antiepileptic Drug, Manic Depressant Drug, and Bronchial Passage relaxant drugs. AGain you will find it on page 114.
30)TSH for ?= distinguish primary and secondary Hyperthyroidism or Hypothyroidism.
31)TSH is low in Kid, what Test you going to do to confirm for hyperthyroidism? T3 or Free T4?
32) Exposure to AIr for Blood Gas? pH and O2 high and Co2 and PCO2 low

33)RBC_Cast
Picture of RBC cast= Glomerulonephritis. See Page 394 Q-104.
34)page 405 Review Body Fluid From Question # 166 to 216 Memorise them by heart LoL, Instead of confusing yourself from wrong Questions Posted on Indeed.
So focus on Questions from Body Fluid such as # 167 Turbid CSF=WBC and Bacteria, Incase of Synovial Fluid why is cloudy?= Crystals or WBC, Q # 173 in regular case strong birefringent is monosodium urate but when compensated polarised filter used its opposite, in this case Positive Birefringent will be Calcium Pyro which Blue when parallel.
Q # 175 Page # 407 on BOC…what is prinicpal Mucin?
Q # 179 I explained alreasdy MSU is negative Birefringent in case of Compensator, Know exudate Vs Transudate,  Cystic Fibrosis, Q #187,  205, 206,  PSA tumor Marker?  Fecal Fat Test?
Synovial Fluid = small clot= Inflammation. Q # 208 —>exact same Question on ASCP.
So from this Few Questions I got 5 on Body Fluid.
Q34) Do all the Questions on Fungi from BOC only. No need to spend extra time on this useless thing. I got 5  and I hate Mycology but 10 minutes review on BOC Book for the first time in life and I believe its my last time too just before entering the exam center saved me. I got Question about cigar shaped –> check on BOC, its just 3 pages on Fungi., Mucor= Rhizoid, Malasala fur fur LoL no idea how to pronounce this shit. u will find it on BOC again.
Q35)DOn’t spend time on Mycobacterium I got Zero Questions.
Q. Why is albumin the first protein to be detected in tests for renal failure?

a. its molecular size is largest

b. its molecular size is smallest

c. it is very negatively charged

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Added Sunday 9-01-13

I saw the following Questions  posted in Indeed and I guess I saw some of them in the exam.

Corr wbc count with 50 cells ( I changed it to wbc X 50 divided by (nRbcs + 100),

ANA patterns, abs, diseases 

conj and unconj bili, urobilinogen,inc and dec

coag inc and dec ptt,pt

cocaine metabolite,
moth ball intoxication ( i guessed basophilic stippling still cant find it)
moth ball intoxication will see what in RBC ?

(Naphthalene is the main chemical compound used in moth balls):”The most common toxic effect observed in the laboratory following oral ingestion or inhalation of naphthalene is hemolytic anemia, evidenced by a rapid decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, an elevated reticulocyte count and serum bilirubin level, and the presence of Heinz bodies on a peripheral blood smear.”

know which anemias are micro/macro/hypo/hyper, I calculated rbc indices to rule out answers.

question on lyme disease i forgot what it asked.

how to measure HDL (precipitate out other lipoproteins)

density of proteins in decreasing to ascending order I dunno what IDL is but I put it in between VLDL and LDL.

Normal total CK but increase in troponin in what? (got it down to unstable angina or acute M.I)

urine from catheter rapid analysis only need to setup which two plates for micro?

nitroprusside detects what? Acetone

gardn vaginalis needs= human blood Agar

c-reactive protein =inflammation

guy is coughing, pnemoniae ruled out= bordatella

ersipelothrix bacteria = butchers and meat cutters

Reactions for enterobactericiae: know the main differential ones

morganella vs providencia =citrate

mycobacterium in tap water? gordonae

what stain to see lipid? i said oil red o only one that made sense

no cell markers, only molecular was pcr steps eaaaaasy

A1, A2 and anti- H

picture of dysmorphic rbcs and asked why (got it down to oxidizing drugs or antimalarial drug)

Listeria= cold enrichment

c. dificile not reverse camp pos, =its perfringens

—-> Very important—> one said strep b was neg on CAMP test w/ s. aureus, do what next (do biochem rxns for b or run CAMP with beta lysin s. aureus I chose this)

inc in pmns in bact mening, lymphs in viral

small qc zones b/c 1.0 mcfarland standard used

alpha thal has hgb H disease and barts

at end of protein electro which is closest to the cathode (gamma and beta)

asked about a csf electrophoresis showing anodal band to albumin (picked normal results)

lactic acidosis 2 questions, and how to measure it

know both diabetes and icto test .

after getting blood thru IV what do potass levels do? decrease

which worm causes autoinfection

had 2 questions, one which increases/or falsley inc hgA1c and what decreased A1c= increases in HgS and iron defiecency

decreases in Hem0lytic anemia and RBC destruction.

met acidosis= diabetic ketoacidosis = Increase in Anion Gap

excess edta causes ?

what hepatis ag/ab will make sure vaccination has occured = Ag s= active, Ag E=infectious Antibody S= Immune.

mucor has =no rhizoids

strep a in= glomerularnephritis

disease with bite cells or blister cells

monitor antithrobin3 with monitoring what = TT Thrombin Time

Why is albumin the first protein to be detected? Low mol weight

burn patient w Pseudomonas aeruginosa accompany with ? another bac teria= S Aureus

morganella vs providencia

how many bag blood to prepare platelet apheresis

PCR  Steps?

alpha thalassemia with what Hb?

small qc zones b/c 1.0 mcfarland standard used

diabetes and icto test

measure HDL?

baby w RH+ O mom w Rh- O baby need transfusion what blood should give?

muscle dystrophy what enzyme increase = LD, CK and AST.

teardrop RBC what disease =myelofibrosis

anion Gap increase indicate what disease = Lactic acidosis, Diabetic ketoacidosis, Metabolic acidosis.

blood gas use what tube/synringe to transport = Heparin anticoag and ice and tested ASAP

CNS smear what condition = see BOC Lab determination for Hematology.

proteus,klebsiella rxn
how many grams are needed to make a 3% solution of NaCL. Calculations= review some common Maths.

Calculate LDL= Total chol-HDL-TG/5

What would cause a false positive for protein on a UA test strip= radiographic Dye

What do you do if you see your coworker …gosh I can’t remember what my coworker was doing but it was a silly question. I chose tell my supervisor?

LDL is made up of mostly ? Apo B and Cholestrol.
which fat LDL, HDL, VLDL has the most cholesterol= LDL most cholestrol.
glycosis has an end result of ? = pyruvate, Lactate or lactic acid.

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Update : Added September 11, 2013
Submitted by user who took the exam this week and Passed. Congrats.

1)      HACEK group what belongs to.

2)      PAS stain negative and sudden black stain positive what disease.

3)      Yellow, Turbid urine what should be?

4)      APTT, PT  and TT all prolonged?

5)      Patients with DIC, patient RBC decreased, Platelet decrease?

6)      Rhogham , how many vials equal to blood?

7)      ESR increase in what? Choices were A) Ammonia B) Platelet c) Fibrinogen.

8)       What is standard practice. A) student read parasite  slide that instructor gave them B) student memorize coag cascade and gave exam  C) student fix instrument after reading operator manual.

9)      Alk/acid butt question, citrate positive and something more.

10)   Antibody panel I had 2 questions.

11)  TP/TP+FN, but it was with wording and long sentence.

12)   This spiral-form organism is seen in urine and cultured on Fletcher’s media.

13)  Synovial fluid collected in anticoagulant tube, what do you use to dilute the specimen?

14)   HBa1c levels control , but glucose levels high today why?

15)   Respiratory acidosis/alkalosis, metabolic alkalosis/acidosis.

16)   ANA Picture

17)  Rh-  mother has increase titer of anti-D. After delivery, the DAT is strongly (+) but the baby is            Rh-

a) inadequate washing

b) added monoclonal anti-D sera instead of anti globulin (or vise versa)

c) or maternal antibodies blocking the antigenic site

18) 15  units of platelet requested for A – patient

Available: A- =1unit

A = 6units

O- = 15 or something

a) transfuse  A units

b) transfuse 15 O negative

C) find out need of 15 unit need or not.

19)  Cryo = 80ul

20)  Bhcg is negative and patient think she is pregnant, but all test are negative.

21)  17- ketosteriod

22)    Disease associated with the following results? Elevated TSH; Elevated T3; Elevated free T4

23)  Only FT4 with something what is it for something like that?

24)  Picture with renal epithelial cells in urine to identify.

25)  Spherocytosis is what condition.

26)  If clumping RBC what what would u do, increase angel of slide, decrease angel something like that.

27)  If rbc to blue what would u do? Decrese PH, increase ph of buffer.

28)  Blood was collected on Nov 1. Blood was then frozen in glycerol on Nov 5. What should the expiration date read?

a. Nov 1; 1 year from now

b. Nov 5; 1 year from now

c. Nov 1; 10 years from now

d. Nov 5, 10 years from now

28)  Fiber strands in urine resemble what under the microscope?

a.waxy cast

b.hyaline cast

c.wbc cast

d.fine granular cast

A. Fiber strands can be mistaken for hyaline casts.

29)   Something with CMV and EBV virus.

30)  Mold picture aspergillums.

31)  Giardia and another fungi picture.

32)  Instrument gave Platelet only 30 what would you see per field under microscope? 3-10, 10-15 something like that.

33)  Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen?

A. Jka

B. E

c. Fya

D. k

A. Is C

34)  Q. Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following treatment of the red cells with proteolytic enzymes?

A. Fya

B. E

C. S

D. M

A. B, RH Ab’s are enhanced by enzymes.

35)  MIC what is it..minimum inhibitory concentration.

36)  Autoclave temperature.

37)  Cardiac marker elevate in acute MI?

38)  If in emergency what kind a blood would you give? autologus, direct, homologous something like that.

__________________________________________________________________________

(Old Samples)
This is a platelet vessel wall interaction, bleeding time prolonged, platelet count decrease and on peripheral smear the platelets are increase in size.

    1. Von Willebrand Disease
    2. Bernard- Soulier Disease (this is the answer)
    3. Congenital  afibrinogenemia
    4. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
    5. Alpha hCG marker of malignancy:
      1. Choriocarcinoma
      2. Testicular Cancer
      3. Pancreatic (answer)
      4. Nonseminomatous
      5. If the protein elevation from B1B2 and gamma are to merge together, what immunoglobulin would I indicate?
        1. IgM
        2. IgA (answer)- this starts to form alpha2 end gamma
        3. IgD
        4. IgE
        5. What are DAT applications?
  1. What is RHOGAM, when are you going to give it and what will it do to the patient?
  1. In an emergency, what blood type of blood would you give if the red cells are needed or plasma is required and the blood type is unknown?
  1. Would you phenotype a patient who had been transfused within the last 3 months?
  1. Potassium is high but the blood sample is not hemolyzed, patient does not show symptoms what do you think happened?
  1. Control was high even after you repeat it, what’s the next step that you would do?

I would re run calibration

  1. What is the isoagglutinations in type O?
  1. Parasites that cause autoinfection in immunocompromised patient….
  1. Storage Temperature and time for RBC, PLTS, CRYO, FFP…
    1. RBC storage time – Storage temperature 1-6 degrees Celsius, shelf life 35days CPDA-1. 42days AS-1
    2. Platelets storage time – Storage 20 – 24 degrees Celsius shelf life 5 days with agitation
    3. Cryoprecipitate storage time –  shelf life12 monts, after thawing transfuse within 6 hours
    4. FFP storage time- Shelf life 12 months, after thawing, tansfuse within 24 hours.
  1. What is the meaning of beta and gamma zone merge

Ans. Beta zon- total hemolysis, the colony or bacteria on Red blood Agar plate lyses the RBCs, therefore surrounding of the colony appear as clear or transparent

Which of the following index will be exchanged if moved out the buffy coat in Lipemia specimen? (Lipemia can falsely elevate ALT and AST. Additionally, it can indicate that the patient did not adequately fast for 12-18 hours before having the specimen collected. In this situation, glucose and triglycerides will be elevated.)

  1. Triclycerides
  2. HDL (answer)
  3. LDL or VLDL
  4. CM
  5. Chlolesterol
  6. What is the truw Ca? How do you measure it

50% Ca is free + 40 % + bind to protein + 10 % bind to anion (phosphate etc.) = 100% total Ca

  1. What does Hgb M mean?

Hgb M is methemoglobin. Normail patient Hgb M is about 1%

  1. WBC: 22.0 could see dohle body, toxic granules. According to this case which is correc?
    1. Bacterial infection
    2. Vital infection
    3. What is the specific test for E. coli?
  1. Anti- F will not react with:
    1. cDE CDE
    2. Cde CdE
    3. Cde Cde
    4. eDe CDe
    5. Which product we should use when the patient has fever when transfusion the blood?
      1. WBC- reduce RBCs
      2. Irradiated RBC
      3. Wash  RBC
      4. What else could cross placenta except Anti-D (IgG)?

Ans. Bilirubin, Drugs, gases, hormone…

  1. Blood culture in aerobic and an anaerobic bottle are negative, but in gram stain smear shows gram positive bacteria. What should you do next?
  1. After 2 days of blood culture, technician found gram positive cocci, what should you do next?
    1. Report to doctor (answer)
    2. Gram positive cocci culture
    3. Maybe contaminated by skin when collecting specimen
    4. What is the reason for Synovial Fluid Turbidly?
      1. Crystals
      2. Protein (answer)
      3. immunoglobulin
      4. Mother Rh(-), but DAT(+) her baby is Rh (-). What is the reason for discrepancy?

Ans. DAT(+) – baby RBC is sensitized by antibody.

  1. Mother B Rh(-), Father  AB Rh (+).   Child 1 A Rh(-) Child 2 B Rh (+). Which is correct
    1. Parental is rule out
    2. Parental cannot rule out (answer)
    3. Child 1 can rule out
    4. Child 2 can rule out
    5. Produce #1 detected 50/100 true positive and 100/100 true negative. Produce 2# detected 80/100 true positive and 70/100 true negative
      1. Produce 1 is more sensitive
      2. Produce 2 is more sensitive
      3. Produce 1 is more sensitive and specific
      4. Produce 2 is more sensitive and specific
      5. TP/TP +FN =?
        1. Sensitivity
        2. Specificity
        3. Precision
        4. Variance
        5. What might the following indicate? Urine: RBCS, WBCs, nitrite, bacteria.
          1. a.       Pyelonephritis- kidney infection caused by bacteria or virus
          2. Glomerulonephritis- renal disease usually affects both kidneys. Blood or protein in urine.
          3. Nephrotic syndrome – Nephrotic syndrome is a group of symptoms that include protein in the urine, low blood protein levels, high cholesterol levels, high triglyceride levels, and swelling
          4. renal calculi – A kidney stone is a solid mass made up of tiny crystals.
  1. Why is albumin the first protein to be detected in tests for renal failure?
    1. It’s  molecular size is large
    2. Its molecular size is smallest
    3. It is very negatively charged.
    4. Cortisol excess will result in…. ( An excess ofcortisol can also lead to a decrease in insulin)
      1. Hypernatremia –  is a common electrolyte problem and is defined as a rise in serum sodium concentration to a value exceeding 145 mmol/L
      2. Hypokalemia – is a lower-than-normal amount of potassium in the blood.
      3. Elevated glucose levels in blood
      4. Decreased glucose level in blood.  (answer)
  1. What is the reason for this discrepancy or what would you do to resolve the discrepancy.

Patient cells Anti- A 3+, Anti- B 3+ Patient serum A cell 1+ B cells 0

  1. This spiral- form organism is seen in urine and cultured on Fletcher’s media
    1. Borrelia  – is a genus of bacteria of the spirochete phylum
    2. Leptospira  – is a genus of spirochaete bacteria, including a small number of pathogenic and saprophytic species. Spiral Shaped.
    3. Organism that gives off a bleach like odor in culture?
      1. Actinobacillus –  a genus of gram-negative, immotile and nonspore-forming, oval to rod-shaped bacteria occurring as parasites or pathogens in mammals, birds, and reptiles
      2. Eikenella corrodens  – is  a fastidious gram-negative facultative anaerobic bacillus – the colonies are small and greyish, they produce a greenish discoloration of the underlying agar and smell faintly of bleach (answer)
      3. Presence of rheumatoid factor in blood may result in false positive for what test?

Ans. VDRL – The VDRL test is a screening test for syphilis. It measures substances, called antibodies that your body may produce if you have come in contact with the bacteria that cause syphilis. This bacteria is called Treponema pallidum.

  1. 36.   Diseases associated with the following results? Elevated TSH; Elevated T3; Elevated free T4
    1. a.        hypothyroidism –   is disorder in which the parathyroid glands in the neck do not produce enough parathyroid hormone (PTH).
    2. b.      Hyperthyroidism – means your thyroid makes too much thyroid hormone. Secretes excessive amounts of the free (not protein bound, and circulating in the blood thyroid hormonestriiodothyronine (T3) and/or thyroxine (T4) (ANSWER)
    3. c.       Pituitary tumor

 

  1. If excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) is being released, what would you find in elevated amount of serum?
    1. Calcium – High levels of PTH cause serum calcium levels to increase and serum phosphate levels to fall.
    2. Potassium
  1. Mucoid, pink colonies on plate; produces gas; indole (+). On TSI tube you see yellow on the slant and yellow in the deep. What organism is this? Indole positive test-  Indole positive test-  appearance of pink layer on top (E.g. Escherichia Coli)
  2. Salmonella
  3. E.coli
  4. Klebsilelle pneumonia – Gram-negative, non-motile, encapsulated, lactose fermenting, facultative anaerobic, rod shaped bacterium
  5. Klebdiella oxytoca – is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium that is closely related to K. pneumoniae, from which it is distinguished by being indole-positive. K. oxytoca is characterized by negative methyl red, positive VP, positive citrate, urea and TSI gas production, is AA, and negative for TSI sulfide, DNAse,SIM motility and PAD.
  6. PAD (+); indole (+); organism stain gram negative. What is it?
    1. Proteus  vulgaris – is indole positive, Gram negative
    2. P. mirabilis – indole negative , gram negative
    3. You see curved gram negative bacilli (rod shape). It was cultured from the GI tract of a person with ulcers. What test would you do next to confirm its identity?

Ans. Urease.

  1. Enzymes controls run on a machine give results around -3 standard deviations. Samples run on the same machine give results less than 1 SD. What could be the problem?
    1. Controls are expired
    2. Controls were left a room temperature
    3. HIV- 1 and HIV-2 combination ELISA test is positive in a patient with symptoms of immune deficiency. Western blot was inconclusive for HIV-1. What do you do next? (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is a test that uses antibodies and color change to identify a substance)
      1. Re run western blot for HIV-1
      2. Do a CD4 cell count
      3. Do HIV- 2 ELISA
      4. Do HIV- 2 western blot (answer)
      5. Steps to polymerase chain reaction (PCR)? PCR – is a biochemical technology in molecular biology to amplify a single or a few copies of a piece of DNA across several orders of magnitude, generating thousands to millions of copies of a particular DNA sequence.
        1. Transduction, transcription, annealing
        2. Annealing, denaturation
        3. Denaturation, annealing, transcription (answer)
        4. A radioallergosorbent test  RAST test detects what?

Answer. IgE to particular antigen.  RAST- is a blood test used to determine what substance a person is allergic to.

  1. 45.   After collecting blood sample in an EDTA tube you find that the hematocrite is very high (67%) What would you do?
    1. a.       Collect blood again, but use less sodium citrate
    2. b.      Collect blood in heparin
    3. c.       Proceed with what you already.
    4. 46.   When you conduct a procedure using fluorescence it is important to protect yourself from the :
      1. a.       Cover light
      2. b.      Emitted light
      3. c.       Exciting light
      4. 47.   Blood was collected on November 1. Blood was frozen in glycerol on November 5t. What should the expiration date read?
        1. a.       November 1: 1 year from now
        2. b.      November 5: 1 year from now
        3. c.       November 1: 10 years from now
        4. d.      November 5: 10 years from now.
        5. 48.   A person was successfully treated for syphilis 12 years ago. However he has just come in again worried about having been reinfected. What would you look for in he blood?
          1. a.       TP-A
          2. b.      VDRL ( answer)
          3. 49.   You suspect someone might have JKa, K ,and C antigen on their red cells. You figure out that they don’t have Jka. You also test their serum and see the following.  What would you conclude?

             Reagent K cells     reagent cells

Patient serum     0                               4 +

  1. a.       Confirm patient as aving K and C antigen on their red cells
  2. b.      Rule out c and confirm K on their red cells (answer)
  3. c.       Rule out C and K
  4. d.      Rule out C but cannot confirm the presence or absence of K.
  5. Reagent strip detected no proteins but sulfosalicylic acid test (is used in urine tests to determine urine protein content) did. Why?
    1. Reagent strip is expired
    2. Bence Jones protein in urine  (Bence Jones proteins are a part of regular antibodies, called light chain)
    3. 51.   Fiber strands in urine resemble what under the microscope?
      1. a.       Waxy cast
      2. b.      Hyaline cast
      3. c.       WBC cast
      4. d.      Fine granular cast
      5. Which of the following regulates myocyte contraction? (a refers to a contraction initiated by the myocyte cell itself instead of an outside occurrence or stimulus such as nerve innervations)
        1. Myoblobin – is an iron- and oxygen-binding protein found in the muscle tissue of vertebrates in general and in almost all mammals
        2. Cardiac troponins – T (cTnT) and troponin I (cTnI) are cardiac regulatory proteins that control the calcium mediated interaction between actin and myosin.
        3. Creatine kinase-MB (CK- MB)
        4. HbA1c  level cannot always be used to monitor glucose levels in conditions such as;

Answer: Sickle Cell Disease

  1. Western blot was run for HIV testing and the result as indeterminate. What should you do next?
    1. Rune again
    2. Do ELISA
    3. What happens when there is intravascular hemolysis?

Answer. Decrease heptoglobin –  Haptoglobin is an acute-phase reactant whose principal clinical utility is in defining conditions of hemolysis.

  1. A postpartum female with a history of transfusion test positive for Anti- D. What is your next step?
    1. Report result and Anti-D
    2. Screen for additional antibodies (answer)
    3. No further testing is required
    4. Assume the anti- D is rhogam and report result
    5. The same antibody was found in 3 different patients. The results of testing are listed below. Which antibody is most likely to be present?

IS         37           AHG

Patient 1    0           2+              0

Patient 2    2+         0                0

Patient 3     0          0               2+

  1.  Anti – Jka
  2. Anti- K
  3. Anti- M
  4. Anti- Leb
  5. Difference between Citrobacter and Salmonella.
  1. Bilirulin: RGT strip (-), Icto test (+)?
  1. Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following treatment of the red cell with proteolytic enzymes?
    1. Fya
    2. E (answer)
    3. S
    4. M
    5. Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigens?
      1. JKa
      2. E
      3. Fya (answer)
      4. K
      5. Reagent strip detect no protein but sulfosalicylic acid test did. Why?
        1. Reagent strip was expired
        2. Bence Jones protein in urine
        3. A blood sample is left on a phlebotomy tray for four hours before it is delivered to the laboratory. Which group of test could still be performed?
          1. Glucose, Na, K, Cl, PC02
          2. Urine acid, BUN, creatin  (answer)
          3. Total and direct Bilirubin
          4. CK, ALT, ALP, ACP
          5. This suspicious form, that measure 25 um, was removed in an eye sample. It is associated with which of the following disease?

Answer: Amoebic Keratitis – Amoebic infection of the cornea is the most serious corneal infection, usually affecting contact lens wearers

  1. Eosinophilia (most commonly seen as a result of allergic reaction, medication reaction, parasitic infection) is commonly found in which of the following disorder(s):

Answer: Parasitic infection and allergic reactions.

  1. All of the following are sources of serum alkaline phosphate except
    1. Liver
    2. Placenta
    3. Intestine
    4. Brain
    5. Which of the following is detected primarily in the antiglobulin phase of the crossmatch:
      1. Anti- Fya ( answer)
      2. Anti- M
      3. Anti- B
      4. Anti- P1

Anti-M, B, P1- are typically IgM and may agglutinate saline suspended cells at room temperature.

  1. What to do with an eosinophil when encountered in a leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) count?
  2. What is the BNP test? A brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) test measures the amount of the BNP hormone in your blood. BNP is made by your heart and shows how well your heart is working. Normally, only a low amount of BNP is found in your blood
  3. The most common cold agglutinin?
    1. I
    2. P1
    3. M
    4. Procedure for Lactic acid test…

Answer: blood needs to be collected and immediately chilled, separated within one hour

  1. For synovial fluid to check mucin clot, what do you add?

Answer: the adding of acetic acid to normal synovial fluid, which causes clot formation  The compactness of the clot and the clarity of the supernatant fluid are the criteria on which the result is based.

————————————————————————————————

Part -2

Q-Effects of caffeine (coffee) on conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin?

A. The Jendrassik and Grof reaction uses a diazo reagent with caffeine as an accelerator.

Q.  Gardnerella Vaginalis, in order to culture, what nutrient(?) do you add?

A.  colistin-oxolinic acid blood agar

Q. Many gram neg bacilli in the urine and nitrite is negative, why?

A.        The bacteria that is present is not a nitrate-reducer/ and The urine was in the bladder for an insufficient amount of time for nitrate to be reduced to nitrite

Q.-Muscle tremor(?), increased Na, decreased K in the body, what hormone causes that? (ADH or Aldosterone?)

A.  Answer is Aldosterone.  This hormone causes inc. blood pressure, retention of Na+, and excretion of K+.  ADH increase leads to increase water retention via distal tubules and secretion of Na+

Q.When RBC product is delievered, proper storage temperature?

A. Delivery is 1-10C, and storage is 1-6C

Q.Cryoprecipitated AHF products was thawed/prepared at 10 am, patient has X-ray at 2 pm (takes about few hours), what will you do with the product?  Proper storage is at room temp, the expiration is 6 hours, and 4 hours if pooled.

Q.Increased anion gap due to (metabolic acidosis or metabolic alkalosis?)

A. Anion gap is Na+K – (Cl+HCO3).  Metbolic alkalosis means high hco3, this would decrease the anion gap.  Metabolic acidosis means decreased hco3, which would increase the anion gap.

Q.Can the ACETEST completely rule out ketoacidosis?

A.No, the ACETEST reaction, sodium nitroprusside, does not react with beta-hydroxybutyrate

Q.You see something gram negative under the microscope. You culture it and it gives off a bleach like odor. What is it

A. Eikinell corrodens, also causes pitting on agar.

Q: Reagent strip detected no protein but sulfosalicylic acid test did. WHy?

a. reagent strip was expired

b. bence jones proteins in urine

A.  Reagent strip detects albumin, whereas SSA detects proteins in general.  So, answer is bence jones proteins caused reaction with SSA test.

Q: Fiber strands in urine resemble what under the microscope?

a.waxy cast

b.hyaline cast

c.wbc cast

d.fine granular cast

A. Fiber strands can be mistaken for hyaline casts.

Q. newborn-Meningitis-Hydrolyze sodium hippurate. Next test to confirm diagnosis?

A) Optochin disk

B) Bacitracin test

C) CAMP test

D) Coagulase test

A. answer is C, Hippurate hydrolysis and CAMP test confirm strep group B, S. agalactiae.

Q. A CSF culture from a 1 year old child shows no growth on blood agar or MacConkey, and a few small, smooth, transparent colonies on chocolate agar. A gram stain reveals tiny pleomorphic gram-negative rods. the technologist set up XV STRIPS and a rabbit blood agar. The next day, he observes growth between the X and V strips and no hemolysis on the rabbit agar plate. What should be reported.

A.  Haemophilus influenzae

Q. 2. Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen?

A. Jka

B. E

c. Fya

D. k

A. Is C

Q. Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following treatment of the red cells with proteolytic enzymes?

A. Fya

B. E

C. S

D. M

A. B, RH Ab’s are enhanced by enzymes.

Q. Procedure #1 detected 50/100 true positives and 100/100 true negatives.

Procedure #2 detected 80/100 true positives and 70/100 true negatives.

a. procedure 1 is more sensitive

b. procedure 2 is more sensitive

c. procedure 1 is more sensitive and specific

d. procedure 2 is more sensitive and specific

A. B, procedure 2 is more sensitive, detection of disease.  The other are entirely wrong or partly wrong.

Q. TP/TP+FN = ?

a. sensitivity

b. specificity

c. precision

d. variance

A. The question is one of sensitivity, so answer A.  Specificity would be TN/TN+FP

Q. What might the following indicate?

urine: RBCs, WBCs, nitrite, bacteria

a. pyelonephritis

b. glomerulonephritis

c. nephrotic syndrome

d. renal calculi

A. Answer A is correct.

Q. Why is albumin the first protein to be detected in tests for renal failure?

a. its molecular size is largest

b. its molecular size is smallest

c. it is very negatively charged

A.  B is correct.  These are not good choices because its really damage to the reabsorption process that allows albumin to pass, including other proteins.  Since Albumin is a very low molecular weight protein, answer B is the right choice.  C, is opposite, because of Albumin’s very negative charge, it does not end up in urine.

A.

5. Cortisol excess will result in _____

a. hypernatremia

b. hypokalemia

c. elevated glucose levels in blood

d. decreased glucose levels in blood

A.  C is correct choice.  Cortisol is an insulin antagonist, which prevents cell glucose uptake, thereby increasing blood glucose levels.

Q.. What is the reason for this discrepancy or What would you do to resolve this discrepancy?

Patient cells                                        Patient serum

anti-A   anti-B                                     A cells    B cells

3+           3+                                            1+               0

A.  This is a reverse group discrepancy, most likely to a subgroup of A.

Q. This spiral-form organism is seen in urine and cultured on Fletcher’s media

a. Borrelia

b. Leptospira

note:  I had this question on the exam so I will update this one.

A.  B, Leptospira

Q. . Organism that gives off a bleach-like odor in culture?

a. Actinobacillus

b. Eikenella

A. B, Eikenella

Q. Presence of rheumatoid factor in blood may result in false positives for what test?

a. VDRL

A.  VDRL and RPR, because both have same false positives.  EBV infection, pregnancy and other autoimmune disorders.

Q. Disease associated with the following results? Elevated TSH; Elevated T3; Elevated free T4

a. hypoparathyroidism

b. hyperparathyroidism

c. pituitary tumor

A.  C is the correct choice.  I think answer choices A and B were meant to be hypo and hyper thyroidism.  Hypothyroidism presents with increased TSH and decreased T4 and T3.  Hyperthyroidism presents with decreased TSH and increased T4 and T3.  Secondary hyperthyroidism presents with increased TSH, T4 and T3.  Secondary hypothyroidism presents with decreased presents with decreased TSH, T4 and T3.

Q. If excess PTH is being released, what would you find in elevated amounts in serum?

a. Calcium

b. Potassium

A.. PTH regulates calcium release from bones, and an excess of PTH would lead to increase calcium and decreased phosphorous.

Q. Mucoid, pink colonies on plate; produces gas; indole (+). On TSI tube you see yellow on the slant and yellow in the deep. What organism is this?

a. Salmonella

b. E. coli

c. Klebsiella pneumonia

d. Klebsiella oxytoca

A.  B is correct choice.  E. coli is indole, lactose positive, and presents A/A, G on TSI.  Salmonella is indole lactose negative and presents with Alk/A, H2S+ TSI.  Klesbsiella has the same TSI as E. coli but is indole negative.

Q. PAD (+); indole (+); organism stains gram negative. What is it?

a. P. vulgaris

b. P. mirabilis

A.  A, is correct choice.  P vulgaris is indole +

Q. You see a curved gram negative bacilli. It was cultured from the GI tract of a person with ulcers. What test would you do next to confirm its identity?

a. Urease.

A. Urease (H. pylori.)

Q. Enzyme controls run on a machine give results around -3 standard deviations. Samples run on the same machine give results of less than 1 standard deviation. What could be the problem?

a. controls are expired

b. controls were left at room temp

A.  B is correct.  Enyzmes are more active at 4 degrees celsius, and are preserved best.  Enzymes will degrade quickly at room temp.

Q. HIV-1 & HIV-2 combination ELISA test is positive in a patient with symptoms of immune deficiency. Western blot was inconclusive for HIV-1. What do you do next?

a. rerun western blot for HIV-1

b. do a CD4 cell count

c. do HIV-2 ELISA

d. do HIV-2 western blot

A.  D is correct choice.  The FDA states that if an HIV1/2 ELISA is postive and a subsequent HIV-1 Western blot is negative or inconclusive, and ELISA for HIV-2 should be performed only if there are no symptoms…but, in this case the patient has immune deficiency symptoms, so an HIV-2 Western Blot test should be performed.

Q. Steps of PCR?

a. transduction, transcription, annealing

b. annealing, denaturation, transcription

c. denaturation, annealing, transcription

A. C is the correct choice.

Q. RAST test detects what?

a. IgE to particular antigens

A. The RAST test is a specific alergen test whereas RIST is a general allergt test.

Q. After collecting a blood sample in an EDTA tube, you find that the Hematocrit is very high (67%). What should you do next?

a. collect blood again, but use less sodium citrate in the tube

b. collect blood in heparin

c. proceed with what you already have

A. A is coorect choice.  A hematocrit > 55% requires an adjustment  in the anticoagulant used in coag assays, NaCitrate tubes.  This concept is a bit confusing becasue we usually learn that coagulation tests require 3.2% sodium citrate with a blood to aniticoagulant ration of 9:1.  If you have never had to make this adjustment, you might think that a high hemaocrit >55%, will mean a deviation from the 9:1 ratio in favor of more blood, thus the blood to anti-coagulant ration will be greater than 9:1…but, this is not the case.  The high hematocrit means less plasma, thus you have excess anticoagulant.  So the high hematocrit adjustment means you need to remove excess antocoagulant.

Q.  When you conduct a procedure using fluorescence, it’s important to protect yourself from the:

a. cover light

b. emitted light

c. exciting light

A.  B is correct choice.

Q. Blood was collected on Nov 1. Blood was then frozen in glycerol on Nov 5. What should the expiration date read?

a. Nov 1; 1 year from now

b. Nov 5; 1 year from now

c. Nov 1; 10 years from now

d. Nov 5, 10 years from now

A.  C is correct choice, 10 years from date of draw.

Q. A person was successfully treated for syphilis 12 years ago. However, he has just come in again, worried about having been reinfected. What would you look for in his blood?

a. TP-A

b. VDRL
Answer is VDRL —> Unlike non-treponemal tests, which show a decline in titers or become nonreactive with effective treatment, most treponema-specific tests usually remain reactive for life. Because of the persistence of reactivity, possibly for the life of the patient, treponemal tests are of no value to the clinician in determining relapse, reinfection, or treatment efficacy. Therefore, a reactive treponemal test result only indicates exposure to T. pallidum at some time during a person’s life. It does not indicate that the person currently has an active syphilis infection.

Q. You suspect someone might have Jka, K and c antigens on their red cells. You figure out that they don’t have Jka. You also test their serum and see the following:

reagent K cells                         reagent c cells

patient serum:                               0                                                     4+

What can you conclude?

a. confirm patient as having K and c antigens on their red cells

b. rule out c and confirm K on their red cells

c. rule out c and K

d. rule out c but cannot confirm the presence or absence of K

A.  D is correct choice.

24. Reagent strip detected no proteins but sulfosalicylic acid test did. Why?

a. reagent strip was expired

b. bence jones proteins in urine

25. I was shown a picture of what I believe were several immature granulocytes in a peripheral blood smear. What stain should you use next to figure out this persons problem?

a. specific esterase

b. non specific esterase

c. LAP

26. Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion would result in what in blood?

a. excess potassium

b. excess sodium

c. excess non-serum water (?something like that?)

d. deficient potassium

e. deficient sodium

27. Fiber strands in urine resemble what under the microscope?

a. waxy cast

b. hyaline cast

c. WBC cast

d. fine granular cast

28. Which of the following regulates myocyte contraction?

a. myoglobin

B. cardiac troponins

c. CK-MB

29. HBa1c levels cannot always be used to monitor glucose levels in conditions such as:

a. sickle cell disease

Q. The most common cold agglutinin?

A. Anti-I, is responsible for cold agglutinin disease.  anti-P causes PCH, and anti-e causes Warm Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

Q.  Synovial fluid collected in anticoagulant tube, what do you use to dilute the specimen?

A. Saline or Phosphate buffer with hyaluronidase…..you can’t use acetic acid because it disrupts the hyaluronic componenet and will form a clot

Q.  Bloodbank, in forward, reverse reaction… reaction in forward, but no reaction in reverse, what will do you?

A.  Incubate at room temp for 15-20 minutes.  The reverse reaction is usually due some immunodepressed event and the reactions will reveal.

Q.  Lactic acid blood collection and processing?

A.  Collect in Grey top, Sodium Fluoride, chill immediately and separate within 1 hour.

Q. Synovial fluid… what makes its cloudy turbity

A.  White/cloudy is crystals….yellow/cloudy is WBC’s, imflammtion or infection.  red, or xanthchromic color is bleeding

Q.  Rice body inclusions in synovial fluid indicate what disease?

A.  Rice body inclusions are seen in Rhematoid arthritis

Q. Bacteria acquired by butcher (or meat packer)?

A. Brucella abortus, disease brucellosis

Q.Birefringent crystal in synovial fluid… it causes what disease? (gout? psudogout?)

A. pseudogout, calcium pyrophosphate…..They are positively birefringent, appearing blue when aligned parallel with the slow axis of the compensator and yellow when perpendicular.

Calcium pyrophosphate are rhomboid shaped crystals.    monosodium urate crystals are negatively birefringent, needles, and cause gout.

Q. For synovial fluid to check mucin clot, what do you add?

A.  acetic acid-this causes a clot to form in normal synovial fluid…a poor clot formation with cloudiness is an indication of inflammation.

Q.  When a test cross-react with Rheumatoid factor… relation with Sensitivity and Specificity?

A.  Cross reacting would produce a false positive , this would related to specificity….which is TN/TN+FP…….sensitivity is TP/TP+FN

Q.  This is platelet-vessel wall interaction,Bleeding time prolonged,Platelet counts decreased and on peripheral smear, the platelets are increase in size. choose best answere:1.von Willebrand disease 2. Bernard-Soulier syndrome 3.congenital afibrinogenemia 4. Glanzmann’s Thrombasthenia

A.. Bernard-Soulier disease

Q.  alpha hCG marker of malignancy:

Choose best answere:a.) Choriocarcinoma

b.)Testicular cancer

c.)Pancreatic

d.)nonseminomatous

A.  C is correct, marker of pancreatic cancer

Q.  if the protein elevation from B1B2 & gamma are to merge together what immunoglobulin would it indicate?

a.)IgM

b.)IgA

c.)IgD

e.)IgE

A.  B is correct….

Q.  fungus organism grows well with oil overlay technique(malassezia furfur)

A,  Malassezia furfur

Q. HACEK group, what’s in it?

A. Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella

Q.  when N.meningitis in in CSF, (i can’t remember exactly, does it have capsule or pili something like that…)

A.  It has a lipooligosaccharide (LOS) that acts as an endotoxin and hemolyzer…responsible for septicemia……capsule that prevenst phagocytosis, and pili for attachment and cell internalization.

Q.  Rickettsia…rickettsi

A,  Carried by Dermancter tick causes Rocky Mountain Spotted fever.

Q.  -there was few questions about Fungus. with petridish picture,morphology.

and microscopic pictures, like Alternaria spp, Geotrichum spp, Trichosporon spp.

Q.  What else elevates HA1c?

A.  IDA, blood transfusions and other diseases that cause abnormal RBC turnover

Q.  – pH7.56, pCO2=17.6, HOC: 38

A.  This is termed a mixed acid-base disorder or a complex acid base disorder.  I know for sure becasue I was having trouble with this question and decided to use the online acid-base disorder calculator….so it agrees

Q.  -pH. 7.25 PCo2=36, bicarb: 17

A.   metabolic acidosis

Q. CEA marker for what cancer?

A.  Colectoral, colon cancer

———————————————————————————————–

Updated 9/20/2013

This Questions are very important. Focus on Questions you have and this one I just posted. Don’t waste time on Questions you don’t have answer or the Questions which don’t make sense at all.

I have answered them .
Good Luck.

Calculate LDL = check book
What would cause a false positive for protein on a UA test strip = Radioactive Dyes.
There were a few questions of interpreting lab results to determine which anemia = calculate from MCV and MCHC
LDL is made up of mostly ? = cholestrol (Apo LipoProtein B)
which fat LDL, HDL, VLDL has the most cholesterol = LDL

glycosis has an end result of ? = Pyruvate and  lactate

Why is albumin the first protein to be detected? = Low weight

burn patient w Pseudomonas aeruginosa accompany with ? another bacteria= Staph Aureus.

morganella vs providencia= check my Table.

how many bag blood to prepare platelet apheresis= check blood bank book.

PCR steps= already discussed before.

alpha thalassemia with what Hb?= Hgn A2 and F.= slight high and Low Hgb A

moth ball intoxication will see what in RBC= Heinz Bodies and Basophilic stippling.

small qc zones b/c 1.0 mcfarland standard used=0.5

icto test= for Bilirubin

 

muscle dystrophy what enzyme increase=AST, CK and LD.

teardrop RBC what disease= Myelofibrosis.

anion Gap increase indicate what disease= Diab. Ketoacidosis.

blood gas use what tube/synringe to transport= heparin and kept on ice immediately.

anaerobic bacteria= Review them. its just plain and simple in page 159 Bottom Line book.

proteus,klebsiella rxn= check my micro Table.

Corr wbc count with 50 cells ( I changed it to wbc X 50 divided by (nRbcs + 100),

Blood bank discrepancies, panels, enzymes, what to do next, =check freezer temp every 4 hrs!

ANA patterns, abs, diseases= check Bottom Line page 45 tables.

conj and unconj bili, urobilinogen,inc and dec= very easy check Bottom line Table.

cocaine metabolite, moth ball intoxication = Heinz and Basophillica stippling

know which anemias are micro/macro/hypo/hyper, I calculated rbc indices to rule out answers.= check by MCV and MCHC.

question on lyme disease= Borrelia Burg.= Dear Tick.

how to measure HDL= (precipitate out other lipoproteins)

apoliprotein A is in what lipoprotein.=HDL

density of proteins in decreasing to ascending order I dunno what IDL is but I put it in between VLDL and LDL.

Normal total CK but increase in troponin in what? = unstable angina or acute M.I

nitroprusside detects what?= Acetone. page 88 review table Bottom Line

gardn vag needs= human blood
c-reactive protein= inflammation.

guy is coughing, pnemoniae ruled out= bordatella

ersipelothrix and butchers disease.

Reactions for enterobactericiae: know the main differential ones

morganella vs providencia =citrate

mycobacterium in tap water?= gordonae

what stain to see the cells in the cast?= i said oil red o only one that made sense

picture of dysmorphic rbcs and asked why ? =(got it down to oxidizing drugs or antimalarial drug)

Listeria= cold enrichment

c. dificile not reverse camp pos,= its perfringens

very important Question—>one said strep b was neg on CAMP test w/ s. aureus, do what next=Answer–>  (do biochem rxns for b or run CAMP with beta lysin s. aureus I chose this)

increase  in pmns in bact mening, lymphs in viral

small qc zones b/c 1.0 mcfarland standard used=0.5

alpha thal has hgb H disease and barts.

at end of protein electro which is closest to the cathode= (gamma and beta)

asked about a csf electrophoresis showing anodal band to albumin =(picked normal results)

lactic acidosis 2 questions, and how to measure it.

after getting blood thru IV what do potass levels do?= decrease

which worm causes autoinfection= check Parasitology.

had 2 questions, one which increases/or falsley inc hgA1c = Hg S or IDA(iron Def Anemia)
what decreased A1c= Hemolysisi or RBC destruction.

high pH and something but what enzyme (Pagets was the answer b/c ALP (Alkaline pH)

met acidosis= diabetic ketoacidosis

what hepatis ag/ab will make sure vaccination has occured= Hep Ab S

 

mucor has =no rhizoids (from Mycology)

Glomerularnephritis = Strep A

disease with bite cells or blister cells= Hemolytic and DIC

monitor antithrobin3 with monitoring what= TT

Good Luck. Take it easy and Take Break after 50 Questions.:)

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59 thoughts on “Questions

  1. Tess

    Thank you so much , this will help me in my exam one week from now. I’ ll give my recalls after the exam to contribute to this site.

    Reply
  2. ifzal2013 Post author

    Q. Why is albumin the first protein to be detected in tests for renal failure?

    a. its molecular size is largest

    b. its molecular size is smallest

    c. it is very negatively charged

    Reply
      1. ifzal2013 Post author

        I did not do research on this one.,… I went with what most peoples said on Indeed…So I chose Smallest…if its largest it will have hard time going thru the kidney filter

  3. ifzal2013 Post author

    @Nirali —-> When Both Factors r prolonged APTT and PT then its common factor, must be Factor 5
    common Pathway= 1,2,5 and 10
    For DIC everything is prolonged and you see + D Dimer, I have update the choice its shud be all prolonged…sorry abt that

    Reply
  4. Nmon

    Thanks a lot for your reply..really Thank you for helping us..
    How about You see lots of eosinophil with a high LAP score, what do you do? I don’t know should they be counted?

    Reply
    1. ifzal2013 Post author

      I think it shud be Grade according to Reaction
      There is a condition where there is Medication adverse effect and in that case you see Eoso with high LAP

      Reply
    2. ifzal2013 Post author

      Also check the Micro, i added a small chart, the 1st and simplest one and I got 3 Questions from that chart . You are supposed to memorise that chart in 5 mins
      I am adding more..I got like 20 Questions in Micro

      Reply
    1. ifzal2013 Post author

      well not all of them…I did not add the most important one yet…Thats the major one…you will see a lot of Question from that chart because most reactions or tests they do in all major lab in Micro comprises of those organism…

      Reply
  5. Che

    Can you help me with the ascp question ” how many blood bag to prepare platelet spheres is?” Also. “if 4 units are needed how many units should a med tech have to cross match if there’s is 68% Jkb and 29% E. “. I can’t find the solution in Harr book

    Reply
  6. minh vu

    THank you Ifza, I just passed the second ASCP. I found the microbiology help me alot.
    I will recall some questions (around 10-20) tomorrow.

    Reply
  7. Varsh.

    Hello , I need the answer of this question.
    Cryoprecipited AHF product was thawed/prepared at 10am, patient has X-Ray at 2pm ( takes about few hours) , what will you do with the product?

    Reply
      1. Clarisse

        Hi Ifzal !
        Thank you so very much!!! 👍I’m sure that it will be of great help to me and other candidates..ill just check the update regularly on our site group .. 😄

    1. tess

      With regard to croprecipitate, you have to discard it if after 4hours pooled . My answer to that question is give it before the Xray of the patient. That is begore 4 hours . That is one of the choices in the exam. Good luck!

      Reply
      1. Clarisse

        Hi Tess
        When did you take the certification?
        I’m gonna take it in a few weeks now.. I’m so nervous😰Will you give additional recall questions and advice ?? If you don’t mind..
        Thank you!

    2. tess

      Croprecipitate if thawed you can you use it within 6 hours if pooled within 4 hours. Remember this. Read the question carefully it makes difference as to time.

      Reply
  8. Jessi

    So the question i remember from my ascp exam: 0.1 mL of serum diluted with 1.9 of water in order to resolve above assay range flag. The of this dilution 2.0 mL was taken and added 3 more mL of water and result came out as 120. What is the result that should be reported in the final report on this dilution? A. 600 b. 1200, c. 6000 or c. 12000

    Reply
  9. Elise

    Also…cortisol levels increase blood glucose (not decrease). All hormones increase glucose except insulin.

    Reply
  10. lilian

    i just did the ASCPi and passed, this web site was of great help, below are some questions that i got
    1.a child who had mot ball intoxication, what can you find in the blood smear
    a. heinz bodies
    b. basophilic stipplling
    c.reticulocytes
    2. a person who uses home made normal saline to clean the lenses with corneal ulceration
    a. toxoblasma gondii
    b. naeglera
    c. acantamoeba
    d. entamoeba hartmani.
    3. a person with glucose sugar of 195mmmol/l and HbA1c of 5% shows
    a.controlled condition in the past weeks
    b. poor control
    will post more once I am relaxed.
    this site is the best you can trust it.
    thanks author

    Reply
  11. lilian

    .1 mL of serum diluted with 1.9 of water in order to resolve above assay range flag. The of this dilution 2.0 mL was taken and added 3 more mL of water and result came out as 120. What is the result that should be reported in the final report on this dilution? A. 600 b. 1200, c. 6000 or c. 12000
    2.use of caffein in unconjugated bilirubin
    3.cryprecipitate was thawed at 8.00 am what time and date will it be transfused before it expires
    4.I had two questions on mycology but I can not remember since i never read mycology so was writing any answer.
    5.ALP was elevated what other test would you do to confirm biliary obstruction
    will update more as I recall.

    Reply
    1. irina

      Hi Lilian, congratulation an passing the exam. Can you suggest a lecture book and a study guide book that you used for clinical chemistry and hematology. Thank you

      Reply
      1. Lilian

        Hi irina thanks. I did not buy any book because I could not afford I only used the YouTube video lectures and ppt lecture nots found on the internet for all my reading. Thank God I came across this website in my final week of preparation, I used the materials found in here and it really saved me. Good luck.

  12. Isa

    Hi,
    To help my fellow students I’m selling my Success in clinical Lab science book on EBAY for less than listed prices. So, feel free to check it out. I recently took my exam an passed and I praise God for that! I had a lot of BBK questions and microbiology I would recommend to know these subjects the most.

    Reply
  13. Teffy

    Took the ASCP exam today and I passed!The questions posted here were very helpful and your Micro notes were excellent.
    For reference: I am a recently graduated MLS student. To study I used my class notes in combination with Polansky cards and labce to see where I stood on test taking (as I studied I did single subject testing and only one adaptive mode test). Our school program was very intensive and I feel it prepared me well for the exam, but as you have mentioned it is what you remember that counts. The exam questions were very tricky, not a straight answer kind of question but more of a ruling out type question.
    I had several calculation questions compared to my classmate who had none. At-least two were on the units to be checked for an antigen (know frequencies), question on relative vs. absolute lymphopenia. It felt as thought most of my exam was focused on blood banking. One question on Anti-A1, one on baby with positive DAT,one on mom with negative screen,one Anti-i, discrepancies in ABO, high frequency AB and low Frequency, one weird panel on cord cells that was being diluted, different AB questions.
    I will try to give some questions tomorrow if I can remember. Anyways thank you for this website and much success to all! 😀

    Reply
  14. aseil

    Hi ,
    I am taking ASCPi (MT) , I have many questions from my frinds who pass this test and I am woundering am I gonna have similar to thire questions since I live here in US , and they live in Middel East

    Reply
  15. Kafarel Delva

    Hi,
    I took the exam on 20th of September and I passed. This site was a huge help. You pretty have a general idea of everything, and not just know by heart but understand the concept. The questions I had weren’t straight to the point. The first 82 questions very hard after that the last 17 was straight forward like identify bilirubin crystals, corrected wbc calculation. If you have any questions, feel free

    Reply
  16. aseil

    Hi , I just took the ASCPi (MT) yesterday And I paaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaassed, I thank GOD for this so so so much , and this web site is Life saver , trust me in this ,

    Reply
  17. Vernon

    Hi. Any thoughts of the rumored new set of ASCP questions? I just started studying and I will be taking mine in 2months. thanks 😀

    Reply
      1. ifzal2013 Post author

        Do you have facebook Account. You can make a group, give it name File Upload and after uploading the File, paste the link here if you know what I am saying.

  18. fatima

    Ifzal, what about medical technologist in chemistry only, Do you anyone that took it. How difficult can it be. Please let me know. I am studying from the polansky cards, harr( which I find difficult and in depth) , labce and other school materials. Thank you very much.

    Reply
  19. KK

    All you do just upload file into dropbox and send link to me. I can download that file from your link. Very easy. Thanks

    Reply

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